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  #1  
قديم 11-18-2011, 01:55 AM
نورين نورين غير متواجد حالياً
Senior Member
 

افتراضي MCQ in dermatology

السلام عليكم

دى مجموعة اسئلة mcq فى الديرما ..هى للأسف اسئلة بس من غير الإجابات..لكن ان شاء تبقى تدريب كويس بعد المذاكرة و لكل اللى محتاج اسئلة mcq

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قديم 11-18-2011, 02:08 AM   رقم المشاركة : [2]
نورين
Senior Member
 
افتراضي

Each of the questions or incomplete statements be low is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the ONE that is BEST in each case.

1. Giant condylomata of Bushke and Lowenstein is associated with human papillomavirus type
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
E. 16

2. Parvovirus B19 infection has been implicated as the etiologic agent of
A. popular acrodermatitis of childhood
B. pityriasis rosea
C. unilateral laterothoracic exanthema
D. exanthema subi tum
E. popular-purpuric glo ve and sock syndrome

3. Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy is characterized by
A. a perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate.
B. granulomatous vasculitis.
C. follicular hyperkeratosis.
D. leukocytoclastic vasculitis.
E. subepidermal blisters.

4. Epidermolysis is bullosa simplex with muscular dystrophy is characterized by a genetic defect of
A. alpha 6 beta 4 integrin.
B. keratin 9.
C. keratin 5/14.
D. cadherin.
E. plectin.

5. Anti-epilligrin laminin 5 antibodies may be seen in
A. pemphigoid gestationis.
B. pemphigus vegetans.
C. fogo selvagem.
D. cicatricial pemphigoid
E. paraneoplastic pemphigus

6. Cutaneous endometriosis clinically mimics
A. Sister Mary Joseph nodule
B. Keloid
C. Leimyoma
D. Dermoid cyst
E. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

7. Eosinophili are typically seen in the cutaneous infiltrate of
A. Krabbe's disease.
B. kaposiform hemagioendothelioma.
C. Kawasaki's disease.
D. Kimura's disease
E. Ki- 1-lymphoma

8. Necrolytic acral erythema is associated with
A. hepatitis C infection.
B. zinc deficiency
C. essential fatty acid defieciency
D. glucagonoma
E. pellagra

9. A 36-year-old man who has been working as a marine carpenter presents to his family
A. chromium
B. lead
C. mercury
D. arsenic
E. iron

10. Varicella-zoster virus is a
A. double stranded DNA virus.
B. small poxvirus.
C. parvovirus.
D. sin gle standed RNA virus
E. retrovirus

11. The conversion of protoporphyrin to heme via the enzyme ferrochelatase occurs in the
A. erythropoietic protoporphyria.
B. erythropoietic porphyria
C. porphyria cutanea tarda
D. variegate porphyria
E. acute intermittent porphyria

12. A 26-year-old man presents with a history of recurrent episodes of erythematous edematous plaques on the arms, legs, palms, and soles. The most likely etiologic agent is
A. parvovirus B19
B. herpes-simplex virus.
C. coxsackievirus
D. cytomegalovirus
E. human immunodeficiency virus

13. A 4-month-old infant has a 2-month history of a 6x6 mm erythematous plaque on the right side of the chest. She developed the acute onset of blistering at this 3 hours after application of bacitarin-polymyxin ointment. The most likely diagnosis is
A. allergic contact dermatitis.
B. solitary mastocystoma
C. bullous insect bi te reaction
D. recurrent herpes simplex
E. bullous impetigo.

14. A 3-year-old bo y with 100 mollusc um lesions is scattered over the trunk and proximal extremities is treated with eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (EMLA) under occlusion for two hours prior to scheduled curettage. On arrival at the office, the patient has diffuse tremors and restlessness. The most appropriate initial maneuver would be to
A. remove EMLA.
B. administer diazepam
C. administer menthylene blue.
D. draw blood cultures.
E. administer folic acid.

15. A healthy 1-year-old child whose father has neurofibromatosis type 1 is referred for evaluation. The most likely clinical sign to confi rm the diagnosis at this age would be
A. iris (Lish) nodules.
B. axillary freckling
C. enhance wound healing because of the scalloped margin
D. dissect above neurovascular bundles.
E. trim cornified tissue

16. Which of the following is unethical physician behaviuor?
A. Billing insurance companies for covered procedures to mask uncovered procedures performed
B. Dispensing non-prescription drugs in the office
C. Performing surgery for purely cosmetic reasons
D. Accepting a textbook from a pharmaceutical company during residency
E. Going to a pharmaceutical company sponsored me eting at the physician's own expense

17. Prutitic small, 1-2 mm wheals surrounded by large areas of erythema characterize which type of urticaria?
A. Cholinergic
B. Solar
C. Vibratory
D. Cold-induced
E. Pressure

18. Which of the following displays lobular pannicultis with vasculitis?
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Histiocytic cytophagic panniculitis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Erythema induratum
E. Eosinophilic fascilitis

19. Which monoclonal gammopathy is most commonly associated with erythema elevatum diutinum?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

20. Which of the following is a sin gle stranded DNA virus?
A. Coxsackievirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Herpesvirus
E. Retrovirus

21. Pili torti and sensorineural deafness are associated with which of the following?
A. Menke's kinky hair syndrome
B. Noonan's syndrome
C. Russell-Silver syndrome
D. Bjornstad's syndrome
E. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

22. Normal stool porphyrins are most likely to occur in whicy type of porphyria?
A. Erythropoietic porphyria
B. Erythropoietic protoporphyria
C. Variegate porphyria
D. Hereditary coproporphyria
E. Acute intermittent porphyria

23. The cause of rickettsialpox is
A. Rickettsia quintana
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Rickettsia conori
D. Rickettsia akari
E. Rickettsia prowazekii

24. Elaboration of which of the following cytokines is characteristic of a TH2 response?

A. Interferon-8 (gamma)
B. Interlukin-1
C. Interlukin-2
D. Interlukin-4
E. Interlukin-12

25. Which of the following tumors is CD34 positive, factor XIIIa negative, and S-100 negative?
A. Dermatofibroma
B. Dermatofibrosarcona protuberans
C. Neurofibroma
D. Melanoma
E. Hemangioma

26. Which of the following is the target antigen in pemphigus vulgaris?
A. Desmoglein 3
B. Desmoplakin
C. Cadherin
D. Type XVII collagen
E. Desmoglein 1

27. Which of the following is an inducer of cytochrome P450?
A. Erythromycin
B. St. John's wort
C. Itraconazole
D. Cimetidine
E. Grapefruit juice

28. What laboratory test should be performed in a patient taking potassium iodide for longer than 1 month?
A. White blood cells count
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone
C. Prolactic
D. Reticulocyte count
E. Billirubin

29. Patients with chronic urticaria should avoid taking which of the following?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
C. Tetracycline
D. Acetaminophen
E. Pennicilins

30. Cowden's disease is associated with mutations in the gene encoding which of the following?
A. PTEN
B. Cytochrome P450
C. PATCH
D. p53
E. Cyclooxygenase-2

31. Anti Jo-1 antibodies are directed against which of the following?

A. Topoisomerase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Gyrase
D. Histidyl transfer RNA synthetase
E. Telomerase

32. Serum IgA antibodies to tissue transgluminase occur in
A. bullous pemphigoid
B. linear IgA disease
C. pemphigus foliaceus
D. bullous lupus erythematosus
E. dermatitis herpetiformis

33. Which human papillomavirus type is most commonly assiated with bowenoid papulosis?
A. 11
B. 16
C. 18
D. 31
E. 33.

34. The Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome is associated with which type of cancer?
A. Esophageal
B. Hepatic
C. Pulmonary
D. Renal
E. Gastric

35. Patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency should avoid eating
A. peanuts
B. potatoes
C. Brussels sprouts.
D. fava beans
E. grapefruit

36. Mutation of which of the following proto-oncogenes occurs in mastocytosis?
A. Erythromycin
B. Metho trexate
C. 8-Methoxypsoralen
D. Naproxen
E. Ethanol

37. The most common cause of leg ulceration is
A. arterial insufficiency
B. venous insufficiency
C. diabetic neuropathy
D. pyoderma gangrenosum
E. prolidase deficiency

38. The number of milligrams of Iidocaine in 1 milliliter of a 1% solution is
A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
E. 1,000

39. A prutative mechanism of action of dapsone in the treatment of inflammatory conditions relates to
A. suppression of T-cell activation
B. inhibi tion of neutrophil migration
C. suppression of the halide-myeloperoxidase system
D. enhancement of TH1 to TH2 shift
E. augmentation of interferon-alfa

40. The most common pattern of arthritis associated with psoriasis is
A. asymmetric oligoarthritis
B. arthritis mutilans
C. symmetric polyarthritis
D. monoarticular arthritis
E. sacroiliitis

41. Which of the following conditions is most often associated with progeria-like facies?
A. Itchyosis bullos of Siemens
B. Tay syndrome
C. Chanarin-Dorfman syndrome
D. Itchyosis hystrix of Curth-Macklin
E. Itchyosis follicuria-atrichia-pho tobia (IFAP) syndrome

42. Which of the following proteins associates directly with keratin intermediate filaments?
A. Alpha 6 beta 4 integrin
B. Laminin 5
C. Desmoplakin 1
D. Collagen XVII
E. Desmoglein 1

43. Watson syndrome is associated with pulmonic stenosis and
A. lipomas.
B. café au lait macules.
C. port wine stain.
D. keloids
E. oculocutaneous albinism

44. Patients with a type I reaction to lat ex may have cross-reactions with which of the following foods?
A. Avocado
B. hor seradish
C. Cashews
D. Parsnips
E. Garlic

45. Which laboratory abnormality occurs in patients with partial lipodystrophy?
A. Low C3 levels
B. Low serum insulin levels
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Neutropenia
E. Elevated amylase levels

46. What enzyme deficiency is responsible for the phenytoin hypersensitivity syndrome?
A. Transglutaminase
B. Succinyl esterase
C. Ethyl glutaminase
D. Epoxide hydrolase
E. Hydroxyl urease

47. Acquired angioma is associated with
A. mastocytosis.
B. carcinoid syndrome.
C. pheochromocytoma
D. B-cell lymphoma
E. medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland

48. Bilateral ear lobe pseudolymphoma occurs in
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. juvenile xanthogranuloma
C. kimura's disease
D. nickel allergy
E. Borrelia- induced B-cell cutaneous lymphoid hyperplasia

49. The most common initial cutaneous sign of tuberous sclerosis is
A. angiofibromas
B. shagreen patches
C. subungual fibromas
D. hypopigmented macules
E. adenoma sebaceum.

50. Sclerosing hemangioma is a variant is
A. angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma
B. dermatofibroma
C. Bednar tumor
D. epithelioid sarcoma
E. lobular capillary hemangioma



نورين غير متواجد حالياً  
قديم 11-18-2011, 02:30 AM   رقم المشاركة : [3]
نورين
Senior Member
 
افتراضي

. 51Which organism is most likely to cause fungemia in an immunosuppressed organ transplant patient?
A. Cryptococcus
B. Rhizomucor
C. Aspergillus
D. Candida
E. Histoplasma

52. Purpuric contact dermatitis is most likely associated with
A. nickel
B. formaldehyde
C. propylenediamine
D. propylene glycol
E. sorbic acid

53. A patient presents with a diffuse morbilliform eruption, lip edema, fever, lympadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, eosinophilia, and elevated liver enzyme levels. The medication most likely to cause these findings is

A. phenytoin.
B. diazepam
C. dexamethasone.
D. celecoxib
E. coumarin

54. Coumarin necrosis of skin is associated with a deficiency of
A. protein C
B. thrombin
C. platelets
D. factor VIII
E. factor IX

55. A patient develops a morbilliform to phenytoin. Which anticonvulsant would be least likely to be associated with a cross-reaction?

A. Valproic acid
B. Phenobarbi tal
C. Carbamazepine
D. Primidone
E. Mephobarbi tal

56. Which of the following has been shown to relieve cheilitis associated with oral retinoids?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Pyridoxine
C. Tocopherol
D. Niacin
E. Riboflavin

57. Which of the following is associated with hepatitis C infection?
A. Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Relapsing arthritis
D. Wegener's granulomatosis
E. Dermatomyositis

58. The most common side effect of dapsone is
A. peripheral neuropathy
B. agranulocytosis
C. renal failure
D. hemolysis
E. hepatotoxicity

59. In a patient with dermatitis herpetiformis unable to tolerate dapsone because of peripheral neuropathy, the treatment of choice is
A. prednisone
B. niacinamide
C. indomethacin
D. colchicine
E. sulfapyridine
60. The microscopic finding of a ruffled cuticle without the usual attached root sheath on examination is indicative of which hair abnormality?
A. Telogen effluvium
B. Anagen effluvium
C. Alopecia areata
D. Loose anagen syndrome
E. Mercury intoxication

61. KTP Lasers are commonly used to treat
A. rhytids
B. green tattoos
C. telangiectasias
D. hypertrophic scars
E. dermal melanocytosis

62. Q-switched laser treatments are most likely to produce immediate darkening of which tattoo pigment?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Yellow
D. Green
E. Blue

63. Which of the following lasers is most likely to cause purpura?
A. KTP
B. Flash lamp pulsed eye
C. Ruby
D. Diode
E. Q-switched

64. The preferred laser treatment of choice for port wine stains is
A. argon.
B. copper vapor.
C. pulsed eye.
D. CO2.
E. Q-switched ruby.

65. Which of the following dietary supplements may inhibi t platelet function?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K

66. Which of the following lasers emits visible radiation?
A. 694 nm ruby
B. 810 nm diode
C. 1,064 nm Nd:YAG
D. 2,940 nm Er: YAG
E. 10,600 nm CO2

67. The ocular structure at greater risk for injury from the 585 nm pulsed dye laser is the
A. ciliary body.
B. cornea.
C. lens.
D. retina.
E. vitreous humor.

68. The ocular structure at most risk for injury from the Er:YAG laser is the
A. ciliary body.
B. cornea.
C. lens.
D. retina
E. vitreous humor

69. Of the following, the most likely location for a supernumerary nip ple is the
A. preauricular cheek
B. postauricualar sulcus
C. neck
D. inguinal crease
E. popliteal fossa

70. For a 70-kg adu lt undergoing excisional surgery, the maximum amount of plain 1% lidocaine administered should not exceed
A. 1ml.
B. 10ml.
C. 30ml.
D. 100ml.
E. 250ml.

71. Which of the following tumors is most likely to arise in a nevus sebaceous?
A. Trichoblastoma
B. Trichilemm oma
C. Sebaceous adenoma
D. Keratoacanthoma
E. Merkel cell carcinoma

72. A child with a large fac ial infantile hemangioma and cardiac abnormalities is most likely to manifest
A. menigeal calcification
B. melanotic stools
C. paraproteinemia
D. thrombocytopenia
E. a posterior fossa defect

73. Opthalmologic abnormalities are characteristics of which of the following?
A. Xanthoma disseminatum
B. Congenistal self-healing reticulohistiocytosis
C. Juvenile xanthogranuloma
D. Eosinophilis granuloma
E. Generalized eruptive histiocytosis

74. Which of the following bodies is associated with an infectious process?
A. Verocay
B. Civate
C. Kamino
D. Michaelis-Guttman
E. Weib el-Palade

75. Joseph Merrick, the "elephant man", showed progressive macrocephaly, asymmetric limb hypertrophy thickened soles, and large so ft tissues masses. He had normal intelligence and no family history of skin disease. This is most consistent with the diagnosis of
A. Noonan syndrome
B. proteus syndrome
C. Maffuci's syndrome
D. tuberous sclerosis
E. klippel-Trenaunay-we ber syndrome

76. A 37-year-old man develops a painful subungual-violaceous lesion. This most likely represents
A. melanoma
B. eccrine spiradenoma
C. granular cell tumor
D. glomus tumor
E. neuroma

77. Exogenous ochronosis occurs after the long-term use of which topical agent?
A. Superpotent corticosteroids
B. Testosterone
C. Tacrolimus
D. Retinoids
E. Hydroquinone

78. The most appropriate management for acute hemorrhagic edema is
A. hydrochlorothiazide
B. dapsone
C. acyclovir
D. intravenous immunoglobulin
E. observation

79. Streptococcal toxic shock-like syndrome most commonly affects
A. patients with uncontrolled diabetes.
B. patients with peripheral vascular disease
C. burn victims.
D. the elderly
E. young, otherwise healthy patients.

80. The most common infections of extramedullary hemapoiesis in infants is
A. coxsackievirus
B. rube lla virus
C. cytomegalovirus
D. parvovirus
E. human immunodeficiency virus

81. A 4-year-old child presents with a tender, well-demarcated, red, perianal eruption. The most likely cau sative organism is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. group A streptococcus
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli

82. Which of the following anesthetics has the longest duration of action?
A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Etidocaine
E. Procaine


83. The lea ding cause of acquired heart disease in children is
A. rheumatic fever
B. Kawasaki's disease
C. dermatomyositis
D. Still's disease
E. streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

84. A malnourished patient has symmetrically distributed, rough, keratotic papules of the arms and legs. Each papule contains a central keratotic plug and broken hair. The patient also has discrete plaques of keratinizing epithelium on the conjunctival surfaces. The most likely vitamin deficiency is
A. A
B. B2
C. C
D. D
E. K

85. Ventricular arrhythmia (torsades de points) is a complication of the concomitant administration of itraconazole and which of the following?
A. Simvastatin
B. Cimetidine
C. Midazolan
D. Cisapride
E. Ciprofloxacin

86. The most common site of metastasis from basal cell carcinoma is
A. a lymph node
B. the lung
C. the brain
D. bone
E. the thyroid gland

87. Toxicity due to azathioprine is increased by the concomitant administration of which of the following?
A. Probenecid
B. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
D. Allopurinol
E. Cimetidine

88. Terbinafine affects the same subset of cytochrome P450 as which of the following?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Loratadine
C. Phenytoin
D. Rifampin
E. Simvastatin

89. The most effective treatment for a patient with Well's Syndrome?
A. systemic corticosteroids
B. antibiotics
C. antihistamines
D. griseofulvin
E. H1 plus H2 antihistamines

90. Waardenburg's syndrome is associated with
A. piebaldism
B. neutrophil dysfunction
C. optic neuritis
D. deaf-mutism
E. seizure disorders

91. Tinea nigra is most commonly associated with
A. Piedraia hortae
B. Phaeoannellomyces werneckii.
C. Fus arium solanae
D. Penicillium mafneffei
E. Trichophyton rubrum

92. Imiquimod induces which of the following cytokines?
A. Interlukin-10
B. Interferon-alfa
C. Interleukin-2
D. Interleukin-4
E. Interleukin-5

93. Male pattern baldness of the vertex of the scalp has recently been associated with an enhanced risk of
A. coronary artery disease
B. hypothyroidism
C. prostate hypertrophy
D. pancreatitis
E. osteoarthritis

94. The multiple hamartoma syndrome is associated with mutation of which of the following?
A. BCL-2
B. PAX3
C. Proto-oncogene C-Kit
D. PTEN
E. HUP-2

95. The most common cause of death in infants with diffuse neonatal hemangiomatosis is
A. infection
B. transfusion syndrome
C. High output heart failure
D. gastrointestinal hemorrhage
E. intracerebral hemorrhage

96. PTEN is
A. proto-oncogene
B. tumor suppressor gene
C. DNA binding protein
D. stem cell factor
E. anti-apoptosis protein

97. Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by
A. herpes simplex virus type 1
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. cytomegalovirus
D. herpes simplex virus type 8
E. varicella-zoster virus
98. A case-control study finds that individuals with a childhood history of three or more blistering sunburns have an adjusted odds ratio of 1.9(95% confidence interval 1.6-2.5) developing melanoma as compared to individuals without a childhood history of three or more severe blistering sunburns. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Individuals with a childhood history of at least three blistering sunburns are approximately 1.9 times more likely to develop melanoma as are matched controls.
B. The study investigators are 95% confidence interval indicates that three or more childhood blistering sunburns result in a 1.9 fold risk of melanoma.
C. The average risk of developing three or more childhood blistering sunburns is midway between the upper and lower values of the 95% confidence interval.
D. Each childhood blistering sunburn increases the melanoma risk by 0.66
E. The study had a 95% pow er to detect a 1.6-2.5 increase in the melanoma risk in individuals with a childhood history of three or more blistering sunburns.

99. A major dermatology journal article reports an adjusted odds ration of 1.5 for development of basal cell carcinoma for individuals with risk factor "A" as compared to matched controls without risk factor "A" (95% confidence intervals 0.9-2.8%). Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The validity of this study depends on the p value.
B. The 95% confidence interval indicates that there may be no association between development of basal cell carcinoma and risk factor "A" .
C. The authors are 95% confident that their study shows a 1.5 greater risk of basal cell carcinoma with risk factor "A" as compared to matched controls without risk factor "A".
D. The study has 95% pow er to detect a 1.5 greater risk of basal cell carcinoma in individuals with risk factor "A".
E. Risk factor "A" causes basal cell carcinoma.

99. A new patient wants to know the comparative efficacy of two topical treatments for psoriasis. If all of the following types of studies were available with comparablepow er, statistical analysis, and pertinent patient populations, which study would give the most unbiased information?
A. sing le-blind, placebo-controlled studies of each agent
B. Double-blind, randomized comparison of these two therapies
C. Nested case control study
D. Interventional cohort study
E. Efficacy rates listed in the Physicians Desk Reference (PDR)
100. A patient is suspected of having lat ex allergy. Based on history and clinical symptomps, you are 80% certain that the patient actually has lat ex allergy. A lat ex RAST (radioallergosorbent) test is reported to be negative. The RAST test used by the laboratory has a sensitivity of 75% and a specificity of 80%. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. After receiving the RAST test results, you are 25% certain that the patient does not have lat ex allergy.
B. After receiving the RAST test results, you are 25% certain that the patient does have lat ex allergy.
C. The study has a 95% lat ex to detect a difference between placebo and treatment.
D. There is less than a 5% chance that the treatment is equal to or less efficacious than placebo.
E. Most patients will improve at least 5% in the parameters measured while on this new treatment.



نورين غير متواجد حالياً  
قديم 11-18-2011, 02:54 AM   رقم المشاركة : [4]
نورين
Senior Member
 
افتراضي

101. A new drug was tested independently in two randomized, controlled trials. The trials appeared comparable and included the same number of patients. The first trial concluded that the drug was effective (p<0.05). The second trial concluded that the drug was ineffective (p>0.05). The actual p-values were 0.042 and 0.095. Which of the following interpretations is correct?

A. The first trial gave a false positive result.
B. The second trial gave a false negative result.
C. The trials were not comparable.
D. As 0.05 is an artificial cut-off for significance, small variances around 0.05 are not greatly important.
E. The results of the second trial were twice as significant as the results of the first trial.

102. A study evaluating the effectiveness of a blood test to detect melanoma found that of 120 patients, 9 developed malignant melanoma over an 8-year period and 3 of these had a positive blood test. Twelve patients who did not develop melanoma had a positive blood test. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The true positive rate (sensitivity) of this new blood test is 33.3%.
B. The true positive rate (sensitivity) of this new blood test is 25%.
C. The true positive rate (sensitivity) of this new blood test is 10%.
D. The true negative rate (specificity) of this new blood test is 33.3%
E. The true negative rate (specificity) of this new blood test is 25%.
103. A study was designed to characterize and follow 40,000 physicians for 15 years to ascertain the impact of lifestyle factors on the development of future non-melanoma skin cancers. What type of study is this?
A. A case-control study
B. A cohort study
C. A randomized trial
D. A nested case-control study
E. A meta-analysis

104. In a medical journal, a study states "baseline characteristics for enrolled patients included body weight of 70 kg. ±3kg (mean ± standard deviation). Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Most of the patients weighed 70 kg.
B. The range of weights was 67-73 kg.
C. Approximately 95% of patients had weights between 67 and 73kg.
D. The study has a ***** of 95% to detect a 3-kg difference in weight.
E. It is 95% certain that the true mean lies within the interval 67-73kg.

105. Black pigmentation of the thyroid gland is associated with
A. tetracycline
B. doxycycline
C. minocycline
D. etretinate
E. oxytetracycline.

106. Follicular degenetation syndrome, formerly known as "*** comb alopecia", is characterized by the histopathologic finding of
A. pre****** desquamation of the inner root sheath.
B. lymphocytic infiltrate of the peribullar area of the anagen follicles.
C. follicular mucinosis.
D. diminution of follicular size
E. eosinophilic spongiosis.

107. Mutations in catenin are associated with
A. trichofollicullomas
B. trichiepitheliomas
C. pilomatricomas
D. trichodiscomas
E. eruptive vellus hair cysts.

108. The characteristic histopathologic finding in bullous impetigo is
A. subepidermal bullae
B. eosinophilic spongiosis
C. dyskeratosis
D. subcorneal pustules
E. spongiosis

109. Which of the following is most closely associated with posterior auricular comedones?
A. Chloracne
B. Oil acne
C. Acne conglobata
D. Pitch acne
E. Acne fulminans

110. Which of the following is associated with generalized pustular psoriasis?
A. Hyperalbuminemia
B. Low serum zinc levels
C. Elevated serum amylase levels.
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Neutropenia

111. The dermatologic presentation of oxalosis most closely resembles which disorder?
A. Erysipelas
B. Acne fulminans
C. *****'s syndrome
D. Calciphylaxis
E. Pernio

112. In ***** patients with Henoch-Schnonlein purpura with IgA vasculitis, which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
A. Pulmonary hemorrhage
B. Hemorrhagic cysti****
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Mesangial nephropathy
E. ****** edema
113. The predominant lipid component of the stratum corneum epidermal permeability barrier is
A. phospholipids
B. ceramides
C. cholesterol
D. triglycerides
E. free fatty acids
114. The anatomic site with the lowest risk of recurrence for a nodular basal cell carcinoma treated by electrodesiccation and curettage is the
A. medial canthus
B. alar groove
C. central forehead
D. conchal bowl
E. posterior auricular sulcus

115. Extracorpo**** p***opheresos is most likely to be effective in the treatment of which form of cutaneous T-cepp lymphoma?
A. Sezary syndrome with dermatopathic lymph nodes
B. Generalized poikilodermatous patches
C. Ulcerated tumors
D. Extensive lymph node involvement
E. Solid organ/visceral involvement

116. Sesquiterpene lactone mix is used to screen for sensitivity to
A. epoxy ****eners.
B. fragrances.
C. compositae plants.
D. primrose.
E. alstroemeria.

117. Which sunscreen ingredient provides the best UVA protection?
A. Salicylates
B. Benzophenones
C. Cinnamates
D. PABA-related chemicals
E. ***phor derivatives

118. The haplotype most frequently associated with Behcet's disease is
A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-B8
C. HLA-DR3
D. HLA-B51
E. HLA-CW6

119. Which nerve is present at Erb's point?
A. Supratrochlear
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Spinal accessory
D. Infraor***al
E. Greater auricular

120. Epidemic typhus is caused by which Rickettsial organism?
A. R. typhi
B. R. burnetii
C. R. prowdzekii
D. R. quintana
E. R. akari

121. Muir-typhus is caused by which Rickettsial organism?
A. warty dyskeratoma
B. verruca vulgaris
C. actinic keratosis
D. seborrheic keratosis
E. keratoacanthoma

122. Azathioprine-induced leucopenia may be associated with decreased levels of which enzyme?
A. Thiopurine methyltransferase
B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Dihydrofolate reductase
D. Ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase
E. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase

123. The parasitic infection associated with Romana's sign is
A. leishmaniasis
B. *******n trypanosomiasis
C. African trypanosomiasis
D. dracunculosis
E. filariasis

124. Relapsing polychondritis is an auto immune associated with immunity to which type of collagen?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. VII

125. Patients with met***rexate should avoid taking which of the following antibiotics?
A. Erythromycin
B. Rofloxacin
C. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxasole
D. Tetracycline
E. Rifampin
126. Acquired itchyosis is most often associated with which underlying malignancy?
A. ****** carcinoma
B. Lung carcinoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Lymphoma
E. Thyroid carcinoma

127. Anti-Ro (SS-A) antibodies are most commonly found in
A. mixed *******ive tissue disease
B. eosinophilic fasciitis
C. drug-induced systemic lupus erythematous
D. homozygous C2 deficiency
E. neonatal lupus erythematosus

128. Porphyrins maximally absorb light at which of the following wavelengths?
A. 280-320
B. 400-410
C. 450-500
D. 550-600
E. 630-680

129. The medication most likely to cause dysgensia is
A. doxepin
B. finasteride
C. montelukast.
D. fluconazole
E. cimetidine

130. The function adversely affected in dyskeratosis congenital is
A. tyrosine kinase receptor
B. rRna synthesis
C. DNA repair
D. lipid/protein phosphatase
E. cell cycle regulation

131. Cimicidae insects (bed bugs) are blood ****ing species of medical importance because they have been implicated as an important vector of
A. human immunodeficiency virus
B. Lyme disease
C. hepatitis B
D. hepatitis A
E. dengue fever

132. Grocery store food handlers may experience p***otoxic reactions from psoralens present in which of the following?
A. Corn
B. Tomatoes
C. Flour
D. Celery
E. Mangoes
133. Cross-reactivity has been demonstrated between ***** and
A. cantaloupes
B. peaches
C. bananas
D. pears
E. cherries.



نورين غير متواجد حالياً  
قديم 11-18-2011, 02:55 AM   رقم المشاركة : [5]
نورين
Senior Member
 
افتراضي

101. A new drug was tested independently in two randomized, controlled trials. The trials appeared comparable and included the same number of patients. The first trial concluded that the drug was effective (p<0.05). The second trial concluded that the drug was ineffective (p>0.05). The actual p-values were 0.042 and 0.095. Which of the following interpretations is correct?

A. The first trial gave a false positive result.
B. The second trial gave a false negative result.
C. The trials were not comparable.
D. As 0.05 is an artificial cut-off for significance, small variances around 0.05 are not greatly important.
E. The results of the second trial were twice as significant as the results of the first trial.

102. A study evaluating the effectiveness of a blood test to detect melanoma found that of 120 patients, 9 developed malignant melanoma over an 8-year period and 3 of these had a positive blood test. Twelve patients who did not develop melanoma had a positive blood test. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The true positive rate (sensitivity) of this new blood test is 33.3%.
B. The true positive rate (sensitivity) of this new blood test is 25%.
C. The true positive rate (sensitivity) of this new blood test is 10%.
D. The true negative rate (specificity) of this new blood test is 33.3%
E. The true negative rate (specificity) of this new blood test is 25%.
103. A study was designed to characterize and follow 40,000 physicians for 15 years to ascertain the impact of lifestyle factors on the development of future non-melanoma skin cancers. What type of study is this?
A. A case-control study
B. A cohort study
C. A randomized trial
D. A nested case-control study
E. A meta-analysis

104. In a medical journal, a study states "baseline characteristics for enrolled patients included body weight of 70 kg. ±3kg (mean ± standard deviation). Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Most of the patients weighed 70 kg.
B. The range of weights was 67-73 kg.
C. Approximately 95% of patients had weights between 67 and 73kg.
D. The study has a pow er of 95% to detect a 3-kg difference in weight.
E. It is 95% certain that the true mean lies within the interval 67-73kg.

105. Black pigmentation of the thyroid gland is associated with
A. tetracycline
B. doxycycline
C. minocycline
D. etretinate
E. oxytetracycline.

106. Follicular degenetation syndrome, formerly known as "ho t comb alopecia", is characterized by the histopathologic finding of
A. premat ure desquamation of the inner root sheath.
B. lymphocytic infiltrate of the peribullar area of the anagen follicles.
C. follicular mucinosis.
D. diminution of follicular size
E. eosinophilic spongiosis.

107. Mutations in catenin are associated with
A. trichofollicullomas
B. trichiepitheliomas
C. pilomatricomas
D. trichodiscomas
E. eruptive vellus hair cysts.

108. The characteristic histopathologic finding in bullous impetigo is
A. subepidermal bullae
B. eosinophilic spongiosis
C. dyskeratosis
D. subcorneal pustules
E. spongiosis

109. Which of the following is most closely associated with posterior auricular comedones?
A. Chloracne
B. Oil acne
C. Acne conglobata
D. Pitch acne
E. Acne fulminans

110. Which of the following is associated with generalized pustular psoriasis?
A. Hyperalbuminemia
B. Low serum zinc levels
C. Elevated serum amylase levels.
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Neutropenia

111. The dermatologic presentation of oxalosis most closely resembles which disorder?
A. Erysipelas
B. Acne fulminans
C. swe et's syndrome
D. Calciphylaxis
E. Pernio

112. In adu lt patients with Henoch-Schnonlein purpura with IgA vasculitis, which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
A. Pulmonary hemorrhage
B. Hemorrhagic cystiti tis
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Mesangial nephropathy
E. fac ial edema
113. The predominant lipid component of the stratum corneum epidermal permeability barrier is
A. phospholipids
B. ceramides
C. cholesterol
D. triglycerides
E. free fatty acids
114. The anatomic site with the lowest risk of recurrence for a nodular basal cell carcinoma treated by electrodesiccation and curettage is the
A. medial canthus
B. alar groove
C. central forehead
D. conchal bowl
E. posterior auricular sulcus

115. Extracorpor eal pho topheresos is most likely to be effective in the treatment of which form of cutaneous T-cepp lymphoma?
A. Sezary syndrome with dermatopathic lymph nodes
B. Generalized poikilodermatous patches
C. Ulcerated tumors
D. Extensive lymph node involvement
E. Solid organ/visceral involvement

116. Sesquiterpene lactone mix is used to screen for sensitivity to
A. epoxy har deners.
B. fragrances.
C. compositae plants.
D. primrose.
E. alstroemeria.

117. Which sunscreen ingredient provides the best UVA protection?
A. Salicylates
B. Benzophenones
C. Cinnamates
D. PABA-related chemicals
E. ca mphor derivatives

118. The haplotype most frequently associated with Behcet's disease is
A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-B8
C. HLA-DR3
D. HLA-B51
E. HLA-CW6

119. Which nerve is present at Erb's point?
A. Supratrochlear
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Spinal accessory
D. Infraorbi tal
E. Greater auricular

120. Epidemic typhus is caused by which Rickettsial organism?
A. R. typhi
B. R. burnetii
C. R. prowdzekii
D. R. quintana
E. R. akari

121. Muir-typhus is caused by which Rickettsial organism?
A. warty dyskeratoma
B. verruca vulgaris
C. actinic keratosis
D. seborrheic keratosis
E. keratoacanthoma

122. Azathioprine-induced leucopenia may be associated with decreased levels of which enzyme?
A. Thiopurine methyltransferase
B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Dihydrofolate reductase
D. Ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase
E. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase

123. The parasitic infection associated with Romana's sign is
A. leishmaniasis
B. amir ican trypanosomiasis
C. African trypanosomiasis
D. dracunculosis
E. filariasis

124. Relapsing polychondritis is an auto immune associated with immunity to which type of collagen?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. VII

125. Patients with metto trexate should avoid taking which of the following antibiotics?
A. Erythromycin
B. Rofloxacin
C. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxasole
D. Tetracycline
E. Rifampin
126. Acquired itchyosis is most often associated with which underlying malignancy?
A. bre ast carcinoma
B. Lung carcinoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Lymphoma
E. Thyroid carcinoma

127. Anti-Ro (SS-A) antibodies are most commonly found in
A. mixed conn ective tissue disease
B. eosinophilic fasciitis
C. drug-induced systemic lupus erythematous
D. homozygous C2 deficiency
E. neonatal lupus erythematosus

128. Porphyrins maximally absorb light at which of the following wavelengths?
A. 280-320
B. 400-410
C. 450-500
D. 550-600
E. 630-680

129. The medication most likely to cause dysgensia is
A. doxepin
B. finasteride
C. montelukast.
D. fluconazole
E. cimetidine

130. The function adversely affected in dyskeratosis congenital is
A. tyrosine kinase receptor
B. rRna synthesis
C. DNA repair
D. lipid/protein phosphatase
E. cell cycle regulation

131. Cimicidae insects (bed bugs) are blood su cking species of medical importance because they have been implicated as an important vector of
A. human immunodeficiency virus
B. Lyme disease
C. hepatitis B
D. hepatitis A
E. dengue fever

132. Grocery store food handlers may experience pht otoxic reactions from psoralens present in which of the following?
A. Corn
B. Tomatoes
C. Flour
D. Celery
E. Mangoes
133. Cross-reactivity has been demonstrated between lat ex and
A. cantaloupes
B. peaches
C. bananas
D. pears
E. cherries.



نورين غير متواجد حالياً  
قديم 11-18-2011, 09:21 PM   رقم المشاركة : [6]
نورين
Senior Member
 
افتراضي

ودى مجموعة تانية


1. The laboratory finding most useful in establishing the diagnosis of calciphylaxis is:
a. an increased serum phosphate level
b. an increased serum calcium level
c. an increased serum vitamin D level
d. an increased parathyroid hormone level
e. a decreased creatinine level

2. the ingredient in nail polish that causes ****** allergic contact dermatitis is:
a. epoxy resin
b. P-tert-butylphenol formaldehyde resin
c. p-phenylenediamine
d. toluenesulfonamide formaldehyde resin
e. methyl methacrylate

3. Which nerve block is useful in achieving anesthesia of the upper lip?
a. Mental ******
b. Supratrochlear
c. Infraor***al

4. Pentavalent antimony is used as first-time therapy for Leishmania
a. major
b. tropica
c. aethiopica
d. infantum
e. brazilliensis

5. Melanoma in situ should be excised with a normal tissue margin of:
a. 0.1 cm
b. 0.5 cm
c. 1.0 cm
d. .0 cm
e. 3.0 cm
6. The common location for osteomyeli****-like lesions in association with acne fulminas is the:
a. skull
b. axial skeleton
c. clavicles
d. ribs
e. femur

7. A 25-year old ***** seeks consultation because of a solitary warty nodule on her neck. Histologic examination reveals tumor lobules composed of clear cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis with palisaded columnal cells at the periphery. The most appropriate course of action is to:
a. Refer her for the microscopically controlled excision (Moh’s)
b. Remove the lesion for fulguration and curettage
c. Inform the patient of an associated high risk of benign ****** tumors
d. Inform the patient of an association high risk of ****** carcinoma
e. Reassure the patient that her condition is benign

8. Which of the following features is a prominent finding in Albright’s hereditary osteodystrophy pseudo-pseudo hypoparathyroidism?
a. Osteoma cutis
b. Osteogenesis imperfect
c. Calcinosis cutis
d. Osteopoikilosis
e. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

9. The best laboratory test to evaluate adrenal-related hirsutism in ***** is serum:
a. testosterone
b. dihydrotestosterone
c. cortisol
d. dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
e. androstenediol

10. A 44-year old ***** had a positive patch test to benzocaine and paraphenylenediamine. To which of the following *********s is this patient likely to show cross reactivity?
a. Lidocaine
b. Para-aminobenzoic acid
c. Para-tertiary butylphenol formaldehyde resin
d. Disulfiran
e. Chloroquine

11. Biopsy specimens of pearly penile papules demonstrate the histologic findings of:
a. Verruca vulgaris
b. Milium
c. Condyloma a***inate
d. Angiofibroma
e. Sebaceous hyperplasia

12. Bart’s syndrome is a form of:
a. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
b. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa
c. Recessive dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
d. Dominant dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
e. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

13. Which of the following can be associated with Becker’s nevus?
a. Dermal melanocytis
b. Absence of hair follicles
c. Junction theques of melanocytes
d. Smoot muscle hematomas
e. Increased number of eccrine glands

14. A 30-year old man has recurrent vascular thrombosis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, uveitis and oral aphthae. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. thromboangitis obliterans
b. Reitier’s syndrome
c. Sneddon’s syndrome
d. Erythromelalgia
e. Behcet’s disease

15. Botryomycosis is most commonly associated with which organism?
a. Kleibsiella
b. Proteus
c. Pneumococcus
d. Staphylococcus
e. Escherichia coli

16. Which of the following complication occurs most frequently in patients with cat scratches disease?
a. Encephalitis
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Pancreatitis
e. Disseminated intravascular coagulatio

17. In a suction blister induced in normal skin, separation is most likelt to occur at the:
a. basal cell plasma membrane
b. lamina lucida
c. hemidesmosome
d. lamina densa
e. anchoring fibril

18. mutations in epidermolysis bullosa simplex map to the same chromososmes as mutations in:
a. epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
b. epidermolytic hyperkeratosis
c. junctional epidermolysis bullosa
d. lamellar ichthyosis

19. The most common cutaneous manifestations of Crohn’s disease is:
a. pyoderma gangrenosum
b. Erythema nodosum
c. Perianal fistulae
d. Oral aphthae
e. Pyostomatitis vegetans

20. Which of the following stains positively for S-100 protein?
a. Congenital self-healing reticulohistiocytosis
b. Juvenile xanthogranuloma
c. Xanthoma disseminatum
d. Benign cephalic histiocytosis
e. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis

21. Acute contact dermatitis due to cross-sensitivity with urushiol can occur with exposure to:
a. peanuts
b. balsam of Peru
c. cashew shell oil
d. bananas
e. rubber accelerators

22. the class of antihypertensive agents most effective in the treatment of hypertension induced by cyclosporine is:
a. ACE inhi***ors
b. Calcium ******* blockers
c. Beta blockers
d. Thiazide diuretics
e. Loop diuretics

23. Cytophagic histiocytic panniculitis is most common manifestation of which of the following disorders?
a. Subcutaneous T-cell lymphoma
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Myeloid leukemia
d. T-cell rich cutaneous B-cell lymphoma
e. Mantle zone lymphoma

24. An infant born with severe, generalized blisters and pyloric atresia would most likely have which for of epidermolysis bullosa?
a. Recessive dystrophic
b. Junctional
c. Dominant dystrophic
d. Simplex (Dowling-Maera)
e. Simplex (***er-****ayne)

25. A contraindication of dermabrasion is:
a. a history of skin cancer
b. type I skin pigmentation
c. the pressure of an epidermal nevus
d. isotretinoin taken within the past year
e. prior dermabrasion

26. desmoglein 3 is found predominantly at which of the following sites in human skin?
a. Stratum corneum
b. Granular cell layer
c. Suprabasal cell layer
d. Basal cell layer
e. Lamina lucida

27. The antiviral effect of acyclovir relats to its ability to inhi*** which of the following viral enzymes?
a. DNA glycosylase
b. DNA polymerase
c. Guanosine triphosphatase
d. Reverse transcriptase
e. Thymidine kinase

28. A patient who is undergoing UVB p***otherapy for psoriasis is scheduled to begin treatment with topical calcipotriene. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely?
a. P***osensitivity
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Renal stones
d. Allergic contact dermatitis
e. Pseudopophyria

29. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a lichenoid drug eruption?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Captopril
c. L-asparaginase
d. Cimetidine
e. Lithium

30. The flash lamp pumped yellow dye laser remits a beam at a wavelelngth of:
a. 488 nm
b. 514 nm
c. 585 nm
d. 1,060 nm
e. 10,600 nm

31. Epiluminescent microscopy of a blue-black ppaule on the shoulder of a 60-year old man reveals red and blue-black “lagoons”. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. pigmented seborrheic keratosis
b. pigmented and spindle cell nevus
c. cherryangioma
d. pigmented basal cell carcinoma
e. malignant melanoma in situ

32. Which of the following is associated with erosion-interdigitalis blastomycetica?
a. Tricophytontonsurans
b. Aspergillus fumigates
c. Blastomyces dermatitis
d. Candida albicans
e. Sporothrix schenskii

33. Exogenous ochronosis is most frequently caused by topical application of which of the following agents?
a. Phenol
b. Hydroquinone
c. Castellani’s *****
d. Resorcinol
e. Picric acid

34. Te amino-terminal noncollagenous domain of type VII collagen has repeating domains that are homologous to which of the following proteins?
a. Elastin
b. Fibronectin
c. Keratin
d. Laminin
e. Nodogen

35. The antigenic target of autoantibodies in fogo selvage is:
a. desmocalmin
b. desmocolin
c. desmoglein
d. desmophakin
e. plakoglobin

36. Follicular spicules of the nose are seen in association with:
a. follicular mucinosis
b. metastatic ****** carcinoma
c. cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
d. melanoma
e. multiple myeloma

37. Which of the following syndrome can be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
a. Incontinentia pigmenti
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Neurocutaneous melanosis
d. Tuberous sclerosis
e. Xerderma pigmentosum

38. A 10-year old blond **** presents for greenish discoloration of her hair. The mos appropriate therapeutic advice is to tell her to:
a. avoid botanical shampoos
b. ingest a diet with fewer leafy green vegetables
c. use of copper-chelating shampoo
d. add zinc to her pool water purifying chemical
e. substitute bromine for chlorine in her swimming pool

39. Painful penile ulcers are characteristic of infections with:
a. Haemophilus ducrevi
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. Calymmatobacterium (Donovania) granulomatis

40. Herpesvirus B can be transmitted to humans through exposure to:
a. cats
b. cows
c. *****s
d. monkeys
e. sheep

41. Impetigo herpetiformis usually occurs during:
a. the first trimester
b. the second trimester
c. the third trimester
d. labor
e. the immediate postpartum period

42. Juvenile xanthogranuloma has been associated with childhood leukemia in individuals with which of the following disorder?
a. Hypertriglyceridemia
b. Hodgkin’s disease
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Neurofibromatosis 1
e. Multiple myeloma

43. In patient who has been tapered off long-term corticosteroids, the best test for measuring adrenal cortical function is the:
a. morning plasma cortisol level
b. ACTH stimulation test
c. Metyrapone tet
d. Insulin hypoglycemia test
e. Urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroid level

44. Patients with epidermolysis bullosa acquisita have findings on indirect immunofluorescence similar to patients with:
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. bullous lupus ertyhematosus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatitis
d. cicatricial pemphigoid
e. hespes gestationis

45. Acute hemorrhagic edema of childhood is characterized by:
a. leukocytoclastic vasculitis
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation
c. congenital protein C deficiency
d. acquired vitamin K deficiency
e. purpura fulminans

46. A 35-year old ***** has cutaneous findings consistent with subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus. Laboratory tests are negative for antinuclear antibodies and positive for anti-Ro(SS-A) antibodies. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
a. Discoid ****** skin lesion
b. Renal disease
c. A neuropsychiatric disorder
d. Serositis
e. P***osensitivity

47. The most common malignancy associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:
a. multiple myeloma
b. lung cancer
c. waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
d. Lymphoma
e. Lhy***a

48. Which of the following stains is used for the demonstration of mast cells?
a. Crystal violet
b. Periodic acid-Schiff
c. Leder
d. Alcian blue
e. Perl’s

49. Mutations of which of the following are more likely to occur in human non-melanoma skin cancer?
a. BRCA
b. Bcl-2
c. Myc
d. P53
e. Ras

50. The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with ****** swelling, cranial nerve VII palsy, and lingua plicata is:
a. cutaneous Crohn’s disease
b. sarcoidosis
c. cheilitis grandularis
d. cheilitis granulomatosis
e. Chaga’s disease



نورين غير متواجد حالياً  
قديم 11-18-2011, 09:42 PM   رقم المشاركة : [7]
نورين
Senior Member
 
افتراضي

ودى مجموعة تانية


1. The laboratory finding most useful in establishing the diagnosis of calciphylaxis is:

a. an increased serum phosphate level
b. an increased serum calcium level
c. an increased serum vitamin D level
d. an increased parathyroid hormone level
e. a decreased creatinine level

2. the ingredient in nail polish that causes ****** allergic contact dermatitis is:
a. epoxy resin
b. P-tert-butylphenol formaldehyde resin
c. p-phenylenediamine
d. toluenesulfonamide formaldehyde resin
e. methyl methacrylate

3. Which nerve block is useful in achieving anesthesia of the upper lip?
a. Mental faci al
b. Supratrochlear
c. Infraorbi tal

4. Pentavalent antimony is used as first-time therapy for Leishmania
a. major
b. tropica
c. aethiopica
d. infantum
e. brazilliensis

5. Melanoma in situ should be excised with a normal tissue margin of:
a. 0.1 cm
b. 0.5 cm
c. 1.0 cm
d. .0 cm
e. 3.0 cm
6. The common location for osteomyelit its-like lesions in association with acne fulminas is the:
a. skull
b. axial skeleton
c. clavicles
d. ribs
e. femur

7. A 25-year old wom an seeks consultation because of a solitary warty nodule on her neck. Histologic examination reveals tumor lobules composed of clear cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis with palisaded columnal cells at the periphery. The most appropriate course of action is to:
a. Refer her for the microscopically controlled excision (Moh’s)
b. Remove the lesion for fulguration and curettage
c. Inform the patient of an associated high risk of benign brea st tumors
d. Inform the patient of an association high risk of brea st carcinoma
e. Reassure the patient that her condition is benign

8. Which of the following features is a prominent finding in Albright’s hereditary osteodystrophy pseudo-pseudo hypoparathyroidism?
a. Osteoma cutis
b. Osteogenesis imperfect
c. Calcinosis cutis
d. Osteopoikilosis
e. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

9. The best laboratory test to evaluate adrenal-related hirsutism in wom an is serum:
a. testosterone
b. dihydrotestosterone
c. cortisol
d. dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
e. androstenediol

10. A 44-year old wom an had a positive patch test to benzocaine and paraphenylenediamine. To which of the following sub stances is this patient likely to show cross reactivity?
a. Lidocaine
b. Para-aminobenzoic acid
c. Para-tertiary butylphenol formaldehyde resin
d. Disulfiran
e. Chloroquine

11. Biopsy specimens of pearly penile papules demonstrate the histologic findings of:
a. Verruca vulgaris
b. Milium
c. Condyloma acu minate
d. Angiofibroma
e. Sebaceous hyperplasia

12. Bart’s syndrome is a form of:
a. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
b. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa
c. Recessive dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
d. Dominant dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
e. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

13. Which of the following can be associated with Becker’s nevus?
a. Dermal melanocytis
b. Absence of hair follicles
c. Junction theques of melanocytes
d. Smoot muscle hematomas
e. Increased number of eccrine glands

14. A 30-year old man has recurrent vascular thrombosis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, uveitis and oral aphthae. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. thromboangitis obliterans
b. Reitier’s syndrome
c. Sneddon’s syndrome
d. Erythromelalgia
e. Behcet’s disease

15. Botryomycosis is most commonly associated with which organism?
a. Kleibsiella
b. Proteus
c. Pneumococcus
d. Staphylococcus
e. Escherichia coli

16. Which of the following complication occurs most frequently in patients with cat scratches disease?
a. Encephalitis
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Pancreatitis
e. Disseminated intravascular coagulatio

17. In a suction blister induced in normal skin, separation is most likelt to occur at the:
a. basal cell plasma membrane
b. lamina lucida
c. hemidesmosome
d. lamina densa
e. anchoring fibril

18. mutations in epidermolysis bullosa simplex map to the same chromososmes as mutations in:
a. epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
b. epidermolytic hyperkeratosis
c. junctional epidermolysis bullosa
d. lamellar ichthyosis

19. The most common cutaneous manifestations of Crohn’s disease is
:

a. pyoderma gangrenosum
b. Erythema nodosum
c. Perianal fistulae
d. Oral aphthae
e. Pyostomatitis vegetans

20. Which of the following stains positively for S-100 protein?
a. Congenital self-healing reticulohistiocytosis
b. Juvenile xanthogranuloma
c. Xanthoma disseminatum
d. Benign cephalic histiocytosis
e. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis

21. Acute contact dermatitis due to cross-sensitivity with urushiol can occur with exposure to:
a. peanuts
b. balsam of Peru
c. cashew shell oil
d. bananas
e. rubber accelerators

22. the class of antihypertensive agents most effective in the treatment of hypertension induced by cyclosporine is:
a. ACE inhibi tors
b. Calcium chan al blockers
c. Beta blockers
d. Thiazide diuretics
e. Loop diuretics

23. Cytophagic histiocytic panniculitis is most common manifestation of which of the following disorders?
a. Subcutaneous T-cell lymphoma
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Myeloid leukemia
d. T-cell rich cutaneous B-cell lymphoma
e. Mantle zone lymphoma

24. An infant born with severe, generalized blisters and pyloric atresia would most likely have which for of epidermolysis bullosa?

a. Recessive dystrophic
b. Junctional
c. Dominant dystrophic
d. Simplex (Dowling-Maera)
e. Simplex (we ber-coc kayne)

25. A contraindication of dermabrasion is:
a. a history of skin cancer
b. type I skin pigmentation
c. the pressure of an epidermal nevus
d. isotretinoin taken within the past year
e. prior dermabrasion

26. desmoglein 3 is found predominantly at which of the following sites in human skin?
a. Stratum corneum
b. Granular cell layer
c. Suprabasal cell layer
d. Basal cell layer
e. Lamina lucida

27. The antiviral effect of acyclovir relats to its ability to inhibi t which of the following viral enzymes?
a. DNA glycosylase
b. DNA polymerase
c. Guanosine triphosphatase
d. Reverse transcriptase
e. Thymidine kinase

28. A patient who is undergoing UVB pho totherapy for psoriasis is scheduled to begin treatment with topical calcipotriene. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely?
a. Pho tosensitivity
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Renal stones
d. Allergic contact dermatitis
e. Pseudopophyria

29. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a lichenoid drug eruption?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Captopril
c. L-asparaginase
d. Cimetidine
e. Lithium

30. The flash lamp pumped yellow dye laser remits a beam at a wavelelngth of:
a. 488 nm
b. 514 nm
c. 585 nm
d. 1,060 nm
e. 10,600 nm

31. Epiluminescent microscopy of a blue-black ppaule on the shoulder of a 60-year old man reveals red and blue-black “lagoons”. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. pigmented seborrheic keratosis
b. pigmented and spindle cell nevus
c. cherryangioma
d. pigmented basal cell carcinoma
e. malignant melanoma in situ

32. Which of the following is associated with erosion-interdigitalis blastomycetica?
a. Tricophytontonsurans
b. Aspergillus fumigates
c. Blastomyces dermatitis
d. Candida albicans
e. Sporothrix schenskii

33. Exogenous ochronosis is most frequently caused by topical application of which of the following agents?
a. Phenol
b. Hydroquinone
c. Castellani’s pa int
d. Resorcinol
e. Picric acid

34. Te amino-terminal noncollagenous domain of type VII collagen has repeating domains that are homologous to which of the following proteins?
a. Elastin
b. Fibronectin
c. Keratin
d. Laminin
e. Nodogen

35. The antigenic target of autoantibodies in fogo selvage is:
a. desmocalmin
b. desmocolin
c. desmoglein
d. desmophakin
e. plakoglobin

36. Follicular spicules of the nose are seen in association with:
a. follicular mucinosis
b. metastatic brea st carcinoma
c. cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
d. melanoma
e. multiple myeloma

37. Which of the following syndrome can be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
a. Incontinentia pigmenti
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Neurocutaneous melanosis
d. Tuberous sclerosis
e. Xerderma pigmentosum

38. A 10-year old blond **** presents for greenish discoloration of her hair. The mos appropriate therapeutic advice is to tell her to:
a. avoid botanical shampoos
b. ingest a diet with fewer leafy green vegetables
c. use of copper-chelating shampoo
d. add zinc to her pool water purifying chemical
e. substitute bromine for chlorine in her swimming pool

39. Painful penile ulcers are characteristic of infections with:
a. Haemophilus ducrevi
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. Calymmatobacterium (Donovania) granulomatis

40. Herpesvirus B can be transmitted to humans through exposure to:
a. cats
b. cows
c. hor ses
d. monkeys
e. sheep

41. Impetigo herpetiformis usually occurs during:
a. the first trimester
b. the second trimester
c. the third trimester
d. labor
e. the immediate postpartum period

42. Juvenile xanthogranuloma has been associated with childhood leukemia in individuals with which of the following disorder?
a. Hypertriglyceridemia
b. Hodgkin’s disease
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Neurofibromatosis 1
e. Multiple myeloma

43. In patient who has been tapered off long-term corticosteroids, the best test for measuring adrenal cortical function is the:
a. morning plasma cortisol level
b. ACTH stimulation test
c. Metyrapone tet
d. Insulin hypoglycemia test
e. Urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroid level

44. Patients with epidermolysis bullosa acquisita have findings on indirect immunofluorescence similar to patients with:
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. bullous lupus ertyhematosus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatitis
d. cicatricial pemphigoid
e. hespes gestationis

45. Acute hemorrhagic edema of childhood is characterized by:
a. leukocytoclastic vasculitis
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation
c. congenital protein C deficiency
d. acquired vitamin K deficiency
e. purpura fulminans

46. A 35-year old wom an has cutaneous findings consistent with subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus. Laboratory tests are negative for antinuclear antibodies and positive for anti-Ro(SS-A) antibodies. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
a. Discoid faci al skin lesion
b. Renal disease
c. A neuropsychiatric disorder
d. Serositis
e. Pho tosensitivity

47. The most common malignancy associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:

a. multiple myeloma
b. lung cancer
c. waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
d. Lymphoma
e. Lhymo ma

48. Which of the following stains is used for the demonstration of mast cells?
a. Crystal violet
b. Periodic acid-Schiff
c. Leder
d. Alcian blue
e. Perl’s

49. Mutations of which of the following are more likely to occur in human non-melanoma skin cancer?

a. BRCA
b. Bcl-2
c. Myc
d. P53
e. Ras

50. The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with fac ial swelling, cranial nerve VII palsy, and lingua plicata is:
a. cutaneous Crohn’s disease
b. sarcoidosis
c. cheilitis grandularis
d. cheilitis granulomatosis
e. Chaga’s disease



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